Are Mill’s arguments for (1) and (2) valid and/or sound or neither?

Explain, reconstruct, and evaluate John Stuart Mill’s argument claiming that (1) we cannot only quantify pleasures, but can qualify them as well (higher and lower pleasures); and (2) that anyone knowledgeable with both kinds of pleasures would always prefer the higher pleasures over the lower ones (you will these arguments in pp. 10-14). Deal with the two arguments separately, even though they are obviously related. Use either Mill’s examples or your own to show the distinction between higher and lower pleasures and Mill’s claim that they are different in kind, not just in the amount of pleasure.  Next, reconstruct Mill’s argument which claims that a person sufficiently knowledgeable with respect to both pleasures would always choose the higher pleasure (here Mill takes on several objections to this claim, and you should include those in your paper). Next, evaluate both arguments.  Are Mill’s arguments for (1) and (2) valid and/or sound or neither?  Why or why not?  Make sure you provide evidence for your argument Use plenty of concrete examples!


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